Preptest 7 Princeton Review Explanations

rt PrepTest 7 LSAT index Section 1 Section 1 Args 1 Section 2 Section 2 Games Section 3 Section 3 RC Section 4 Se...

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PrepTest 7

LSAT

index

Section 1 Section 1 Args 1

Section 2 Section 2 Games

Section 3 Section 3 RC

Section 4 Section 4 Args 2

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Copyright © 1999 by Princeton Review Management, L.L.C. All Rights Reserved.

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PrepTest 7 section 1 question 1

LSAT

1. Weaken. Look for the answer that undermines the argument’s conclusion. The argument concludes that the increase in the number of books sold after the invention of the printing press is a reflection of an increased rate of literacy. The argument assumes that there is no other reason (the decrease in the cost of books, for instance) that so many more books were bought. (A) This answer actually strengthens the argument, by implying that there was an increase in the ability to write shortly after the invention of the printing press. (B) Irrelevant. This merely shows that people who can read can usually also write. (C) Correct. So there were actually no more people buying books. Each buyer simply bought a lot more books. (D) If the books circulated, this might reinforce the notion that more people learned how to read. (E) So anyone who bought them must have been literate. This reinforces the argument.


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2. Assumption. What must be true for the conclusion to be properly drawn? Look for a gap in the argument. For soft drinks sweetened by Bevex to be dangerous, 25 cans a day would have to be consumed. Therefore, Bevex is safe. This assumes that people will not drink 25 cans a day of soft drinks sweetened with Bevex. (A) The speed with which cancer develops is not relevant to the argument. (B) Current food additives are out of scope. (C) Correct. If people were to drink 25 or more cans, then Bevex could not be called safe. (D) Weight control is not relevant to the argument. (E) Studies other than those pertaining to the carcinogenic effects of Bevex are out of scope.


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3. Reasoning. How does Judith interpret Harry’s remark? She took his statement about how quickly one can fly to be a statement about the ability of people to pay for these flights. (A) No. She takes issue with his claim because most people are not rich. (B) Having the right to travel is out of scope. (C) The argument is about access to travel that allows one to travel around the world in much less time than was formerly possible. Judith does not question whether other means of travel are possible, instead she questions the affordability of air travel. (D) Modes of transportation other than flight are out of scope. (E) Correct. She takes his statement to mean that he believes everyone can afford to travel around the world quickly.


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4. Weaken. What casts doubt on the validity of the advertising claim? (A) Other fiber supplements are not relevant to the claim. (B) Why people ought to eat fiber is not important. (C) Whether the pills are addictive has no impact on how accurate the advertisement is. (D) How many pills should be taken is not relevant. (E) Correct. Though the pill is 44% fiber, it is only a tiny fraction of the recommended daily dose of fiber. People might easily misconstrue the 44% as the amount of the daily dose of fiber that each pill represents.


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5. Principle. Which principle justifies the argument? There can be no moral duty to choose products in the way environmentalists urge because it is impossible for consumers to assess the environmental impact of a product. (A) No, effects on other people are not mentioned in the argument. (B) Correct. If the consumer cannot possibly know the environmental effects of his or her purchases, then there can be no moral duty to base those purchases on environmental effects. (C) Other determinants are not discussed in the argument. (D) This in no way relates to the conclusion of the argument, which is that these potentially harmful purchases actually cannot be avoided. (E) Legal duty is not mentioned in the argument.


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6. Reasoning. What strategy does the advertisement employ? The argument draws an analogy between exercise improving the performance of the heart and lungs and reading improving the performance of the brain. (A) There is no evidence that subscribing to the journal has any such effects. (B) No one is ridiculed. (C) The process is not explained. (D) There is no careful analysis. (E) Correct. Because they are similar in that they are organs of the body, the argument asserts that they are similar in that appropriate exercise can improve their performance.


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7. Reasoning. How is the argument made? The problems with shifting healthcare costs are compared with pushing on a balloon. (A) No. The premise of health-care reimbursement is not discussed. (B) No fraudulent intent is attributed. (C) Yes. The analogy of the balloon. (D) A solution is only deemed impossible within the current system. (E) No instance of cooperation is cited.


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8. Inference. Which statement does the argument support? (A) Yes. We need a comprehensive, as opposed to a piecemeal, approach. (B) The income of such professionals is not mentioned. (C) The focus of the argument is on how to decrease such costs, not whether or why they are expanding. (D) Such advances are not discussed. (E) Unfilled hospital beds are completely out of scope.


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PrepTest 7

LSAT

section 1 question 9

9. Inference. Look for the answer best supported by the argument. The public tends to interpret the degree of media coverage as an indication of the likelihood of a potential danger occurring. (A) There is no comparison between print and broadcast news. (B) What dictates the emphasis on catastrophe is not discussed in the argument. (C) The issue of control is not mentioned in the argument. (D) Correct. Public perception of risk is warped by news media. (E) Diseases are completely out of scope.


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10. Flaw. Why does the evidence fail to establish the conclusion? The argument assumes that there are no other differences in the diets that would explain the difference in the behavior of the children. Furthermore, there is no control group— that is, there are no children who did not experience the change in diet to compare to the children whose diet was changed. (A) There is no necessity for the reduction to be exactly proportionate for some sort of correlation to be drawn between the additive and the behavior problem. (B) Correct. Such a study requires the presence of a control group. (C) The number is unimportant. The change in proportion is what is significant. (D) There need be no evidence that the behavior of any of the children is unaffected by the additive. The argument seeks to establish that the change in diet had an effect on part of the group. (E) There is no indication that any children experienced an increase in behavior problems. Even if some did, it is clear that a statistically significant percentage experienced a decrease.


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11. Resolve/Explain. Look for the answer that explains the apparent inconsistency. Why were a greater proportion of cars made in the 1970’s in need of engine repair than those made in the 1960’s? (A) This gives us no reason why the newer cars would be more likely to need repair. (B) Then it would seem that the older cars would need more repair, not the newer ones. (C) So rather than repair the cars, the owners scrap them. This explains the apparent paradox. (D) Complexity of engine design is not relevant to the argument. The test writers certainly can’t expect you to know for sure what effect a more complex engine design would have on a car’s durability. (E) This does not explain why the cars built in the 70’s were more likely to need repair.


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12. Inference. Which answer must be true? (A) Correct. No mathematician today would refuse to believe a truth simply because the only proof of the theorem involved an enormous computation. So some mathematicians today who think that a simple theorem ought to have a simple proof would be willing to consider accepting the results of an enormous computation. (B) Individuals other than mathematicians are not discussed in the argument, so no conclusions can be drawn about them. (C) Since all mathematicians today would accept the results of an enormous computation as proof of a theorem, those who would refuse to accept these results are not mathematicians and are therefore not part of the argument. (D) Since all mathematicians today would accept the results of an enormous computation as proof of a theorem, those who would refuse to accept these results are not mathematicians and are therefore not part of the argument. (E) Individuals other than mathematicians are not discussed in the argument, so no conclusions can be drawn about them.


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13. Parallel the reasoning. Look for the answer that best matches the reasoning of the argument. Climb——> will not live, do not climb——> will be bored, therefore live——> will have been bored. A——> B, A——> C, therefore B——> C. (A) A——> B, B——> C, therefore you must A. Not a match. (B) A——> B, C——> D, therefore A in order to C. Weird. Not a match. (C) A——> B, A——> C, therefore B——> C. Correct. (D) A——> B, A——> C, therefore A——> C. Essentially repeats the same conditional twice. (E) A——> B, A——> C, therefore B——> C. Tricky, but not correct. Flawed reasoning.


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14. Weaken. Look for the answer that undermines the argument against the marine biologists’ hypothesis. Lobsters do not eat each other due to hunger, since they have been together in traps for as long as two months and not eaten each other. The argument assumes that the lobsters who were together in traps for prolonged periods did not have some other source of food that prevented them from becoming hungry. (A) No. The argument is about lobsters that are caught in lobster traps. (B) No. Lobsters could have been together longer, so long as they still did not eat each other. (C) How many lobsters are normally caught in traps in not relevant to the argument. (D) Other marine species are not relevant to the argument. (E) Correct. The argument assumes that the lobsters were not somehow sufficiently fed to avoid becoming hungry.


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15. Strengthen. Look for the answer that supports the conclusion. The ban on hunting has actually created, not alleviated, a threat to public safety. The argument assumes that the deer population would not have increased had hunting been allowed. (A) Correct. This shows some sort of correlation between hunting and controlling the deer population, which strengthens the author’s claim that the ban on hunting in responsible for the boom in deer population. (B) The frequency with which such accidents cause injury is not important. The argument established that such accidents do sometimes cause injury, which makes them a threat to public safety. (C) Disease and malnutrition in deer are out of scope. The argument is about threats to public safety. (D) Whether people feed the deer is completely irrelevant. (E) Damage to ornamental shrubs does not constitute a threat to public safety, only a threat to shrubbery.


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16. Inference. Which answer is best supported by the passage. The greater a comet’s mass, the more light it reflects. Halley’s comet reflects 60 times less light per unit of mass than had been previously thought. So estimates of the size of the comet based on brightness were inaccurate. (A) No. It is possible that no comets are composed of material that reflects as much light as Halley’s comet was thought to reflect. (B) Correct. If estimates were based on how much light the material was once thought to reflect, these estimates would have been incorrect. (C) No, it is the mass of the comet that has been underestimated. Since the comet gives off sixty times less light per unit of mass than had been previously thought, the comet must be much larger than had been previously anticipated to give off the amount of light that it does. (D) Whether the materials are different in other comets is unknown; only Halley’s comet is discussed. (E) If the scientists now know how much light is given off per unit of mass, and they can measure how much total light is given off by the comet, then the scientists should be able to derive the actual mass of Halley’s comet.


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LSAT

17. Flaw. How does the stationer’s response fail to address the office manager’s objection. The manager objects that recycled paper is inferior to non-recycled paper. The stationer responds by talking about paper in the 1850’s rather than paper today. (A) Whether the manager is ignorant is not established in the argument. (B) Correct. The manager does not care about paper that was made a over a century ago. (C) Environmental issues are not relevant. (D) The basic technology of paper manufacturing is not relevant to this argument. (E) The manager’s concerns are not ignored; they are dealt with in an irrelevant context.


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18. Reasoning. What role does the statement that the car Peter took got damaged while the car Alicia took did not play in the argument? It shows a distinction between their two situations that the author believes should have made no difference in how the two were treated. (A) No. The distinction between their situations is argued against by the conclusion. (B) No. The author is arguing against the differing outcome of the two cases. (C) Correct. It shows that the author is aware of the difference in the two cases, but still does not agree with how they were handled. (D) No. There is no general principle stated in the argument. (E) No. It shows the basis for the position against which the author is arguing, but does not summarize that position.


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19. Inference/EXCEPT. Four of the five answers could be true. Look for the answer that must be false. (A) This could be true. Then the two would have been treated similarly, which is the author’s position. (B) This could be true. We do not know whether this was her first such action or not. (C) This cannot be true. If the taxi hit Peter because he ran a red light, then the damage was his fault, whereas the argument posits that there is no difference between the blameworthiness of Peter’s and Alicia’s respective behaviors since the damage to the car that Peter was driving was not his fault. (D) This could be true. The difference discussed in the passage is the difference in whether either driver was responsible for what drew that attention of the police, not whether they did anything at all wrong while driving. (E) This could be true. Whether Peter was previously a bad driver is out of the scope of the argument.


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20. Parallel the flaw. Look for the answer that commits the same error in reasoning. If Dr. Esposito runs, Krasman will not run. So she will be the only candidate if she runs. This assumes without justification that Krasman is the only other possible candidate. Look for the answer that assumes that there are only two options. (A) No. The flawed assumption here is that for downtown to be a viable shopping area, a large store must be there, not that there are only two possible options. (B) Correct. One option— playing Friday— is ruled out if they play Saturday, so the argument assumes that all other days are ruled out. This matches the logical structure of the original argument. (C) No. For this to be a parallel argument it would need to conclude that Marilyn would get the job (thereby ignoring other possible outcomes aside from Sven getting the job). (D) No. This is not flawed. The argument establishes that there were only two possible options, and that Rustiman’s involvement precludes Jones’, so Rustiman was the only one involved. (E) No. This is not flawed. If the book is the best, then no other book can be the best.


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21. Inference. Look for the answer best supported by the passage. (A) Whether the frequency of accidents will increase is not discussed in the passage. (B) Correct. The major accidents have been caused by human error, not by flaws in the technology, and human error cannot be thought unlikely to occur, so such accidents are not improbable. Notice the nice moderate language. (C) No. The likelihood of human error in one specific context might well be reducible, just not eliminated in all contexts. (D) The materials used in the construction of nuclear power plants are not discussed in the argument. (E) No. The argument merely asserts that flaws in technology have not been responsible for serious accidents thus far. It is possible that these flaws may cause serious accidents in the future.


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22. Assumption. What do we need to know about in order to be able to evaluate the skeptics’ claims? The skeptics assume that the odd behavior associated with earthquakes is indistinguishable from other odd animal behavior. (A) The truth of a belief is not determined by how many people believe it. This is not relevant. (B) Other means are not relevant to the argument. (C) Only those animals whose behavior can be judged as abnormal are relevant to the argument. (D) Whether the behavior is more pronounced in one species of animal than in another is not important. (E) Correct. If the odd behavior is specific to the earthquakes, then animal behavior could be an accurate predictor of impending quakes.


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23. Strengthen. Find the answer that would make the explanation more persuasive. The argument assumes that embezzlers are more likely to be able to hire private lawyers than are street criminals. It also assumes that the defense lawyer, and not some other factor, is the reason that the embezzlers were not convicted. Finally, it assumes that embezzlers are guilty with roughly the same frequency as are street criminals. (A) No. This would weaken the argument, showing that street criminals can also afford private lawyers. (B) No. This would also weaken the argument, showing another possible reason that embezzlers are less frequently convicted. (C) The number of criminals convicted is unimportant. The question is how frequently are the criminals convicted relative to the number of instances of a given sort of crime. (D) Correct. If the percentage of embezzlers and street criminals who are guilty is the same, then there must be some reason that embezzlers are less frequently convicted of their crimes. (E) No. This would weaken the argument by giving another reason why street criminals might be more likely to be convicted.


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24. Assumption. Look for the answer that fills a gap in the argument’s logic. The argument assumes that things cannot be found serendipitously that still bear on the scientist’s research. (A) Correct. Only if the finding is not relevant to the research must it be ignored. A serendipitous finding could still be relevant to research, and so could still be paid attention to. (B) Whether researchers made such predictions in the past is not relevant. The question is whether they were able to pay attention to serendipitous discoveries now, but not then. (C) What type of research the investigators might prefer is not discussed in the argument. (D) Extreme. Not all investigators must receive the grants they apply for. Not even all investigators depend on grants. They ‘depend heavily’ on grants. (E) No. The argument claims that many major discoveries of the past have depended on serendipity. That is not the same as saying that serendipitous discoveries are the most valuable.


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25. Resolve/Explain. Look for the answer that explains the apparent paradox. How can it be that antitheft devices reduce the frequency of theft, yet those cars with such devices are more likely to be stolen? One reason might be because no one puts an anti-theft device in a piece of junk. Another reason might be that people who expect auto-theft attempts are more likely to install antitheft devices. (A) How quickly the insurance company is informed of the theft of a car is not important. (B) This does not resolve the paradox. Cars with anti-theft devices are still more likely to be stolen than are cars without them, and we still do not know why. (C) The type of anti-theft device employed is not relevant to the argument. (D) Correct. In other words, people with nice cars who live in areas where theft is common are the ones most likely to have anti-theft devices, so it is those people whose cars present the most appealing targets who have the devices. This explains why cars with the devices are more likely to be stolen than are cars without the devices. (E) If the devices offer little protection, why do police statistics show that the devices reduce risk of theft? This does not resolve the paradox.


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Game I: questions 1-7. Seven time slots number 1-7 will be filled with six songs, GHLOPS, and the news, N. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 Clue 1: LO Clue 2: L...N Clue 3: P _ _ G or G _ _ P Deductions: L cannot be 6 or 7, O cannot be 1 or 7, N cannot be 1 or 2. Key: There are very few clues—really only two if you combine clues 1 and 2 to make LO . . . N. Focus on what you know. 1. If G is second, what must be third? P must be fifth (Clue #3). So the only space for the LO block, if N is to come later, is third and fourth: 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 G L O P Since L is in space 3, the correct answer is (C).


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LSAT

Game I: questions 1-7. Seven time slots number 1-7 will be filled with six songs, GHLOPS, and the news, N. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 Clue 1: LO Clue 2: L...N Clue 3: P _ _ G or G _ _ P Deductions: L cannot be 6 or 7, O cannot be 1 or 7, N cannot be 1 or 2. Key: There are very few clues—really only two if you combine clues 1 and 2 to make LO . . . N. Focus on what you know. 2. When can the news not be played? See deductions. The news cannot be first or second, since it must come after L and O. The correct answer is (A).


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LSAT

Game I: questions 1-7. Seven time slots number 1-7 will be filled with six songs, GHLOPS, and the news, N. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 Clue 1: LO Clue 2: L...N Clue 3: P _ _ G or G _ _ P Deductions: L cannot be 6 or 7, O cannot be 1 or 7, N cannot be 1 or 2. Key: There are very few clues—really only two if you combine clues 1 and 2 to make LO . . . N. Focus on what you know. 3. If H and S are as far from each other as possible, what could be the first, second and third slots? Try out the answers. Eliminate those that break rules. If possible, make one of H and S first, and the other last. (A) No. Because L must be immediately before O, and there must be two spaces between G and P, both O and P would have to go fourth. (B) No. The news must come after L and O. (C) This is the correct answer. The full order would be H G L O P N S. (D) No. Either P or G would have to be last to satisfy Clue 3, so H and S would not be as far apart as possible. (E) No. We want either H or S to be first.


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LSAT

Game I: questions 1-7. Seven time slots number 1-7 will be filled with six songs, GHLOPS, and the news, N. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 Clue 1: LO Clue 2: L...N Clue 3: P _ _ G or G _ _ P Deductions: L cannot be 6 or 7, O cannot be 1 or 7, N cannot be 1 or 2. Key: There are very few clues—really only two if you combine clues 1 and 2 to make LO . . . N. Focus on what you know. 4. If P is fifth, when must L be? If P is fifth, Clue 3 tells you that G is 2. The only place that the LO block can fit while observing Clue 2 is in spaces 3 and 4. L is therefore in space 3 and the correct answer is (C).


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LSAT

Game I: questions 1-7. Seven time slots number 1-7 will be filled with six songs, GHLOPS, and the news, N. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 Clue 1: LO Clue 2: L...N Clue 3: P _ _ G or G _ _ P Deductions: L cannot be 6 or 7, O cannot be 1 or 7, N cannot be 1 or 2. Key: There are very few clues—really only two if you combine clues 1 and 2 to make LO . . . N. Focus on what you know. 5. How far can S be from the news? Try to put as many tapes as possible between S and the news. Make S come first: 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 S P L O G H N With S first, we can make the news last. So we can have five tapes between S and the news. The correct answer is (E).


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LSAT

Game I: questions 1-7. Seven time slots number 1-7 will be filled with six songs, GHLOPS, and the news, N. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 Clue 1: LO Clue 2: L...N Clue 3: P _ _ G or G _ _ P Deductions: L cannot be 6 or 7, O cannot be 1 or 7, N cannot be 1 or 2. Key: There are very few clues—really only two if you combine clues 1 and 2 to make LO . . . N. Focus on what you know. 6. What is the latest L can be played? See deductions. L cannot be sixth or seventh. Make sure L can be fifth: 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 P H S G L O N Since L can be fifth, the correct answer is (C).


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LSAT

Game I: questions 1-7. Seven time slots number 1-7 will be filled with six songs, GHLOPS, and the news, N. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 Clue 1: LO Clue 2: L...N Clue 3: P _ _ G or G _ _ P Deductions: L cannot be 6 or 7, O cannot be 1 or 7, N cannot be 1 or 2. Key: There are very few clues—really only two if you combine clues 1 and 2 to make LO . . . N. Focus on what you know. 7. The time slot for O is determined if G is placed where? Try out the answers: 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 (A) G P (B) G P (C) G (D) P L O G (E) P G Only in answer choice (D) is the position of O determined. In all the other choices, there are two places where the LO block could go and still leave space for N to come after. So the correct answer is (D).


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LSAT

Game II: questions 8-12. Doctor Yamata works MTWFS. She performs four activities: LOPR. Each day, she performs one action in the morning, and one in the afternoon. Diagram as follows: M T W F S a.m. O O O p.m. L P P Clues: putting the clues together, we get the following list of her activities: a.m. OOOPR p.m. LLPPP LL . Also, no L on Saturday, which means no L on Friday since the LL block must be on consecutive days (don’t forget, she takes all day Thursday off). Therefore, she must see patients on Friday and Saturday afternoon. No O on Saturday. MT OO Deductions: She must lecture on Tuesday. She has to lecture on consecutive days, and cannot lecture on Friday or Saturday, so she must lecture either MT or TW. In either case, she must lecture Tuesday. Also, she must operate Wednesday and Friday. She cannot operate Saturday, and she can only operate on either Monday or Tuesday. Since she must operate three times, she has to operate on both Wednesday and Friday. 8. When must Doctor Yamata lecture? Tuesday. See deduction above. (B) is the correct answer.


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Game II: questions 8-12. Doctor Yamata works MTWFS. She performs four activities: LOPR. Each day, she performs one action in the morning, and one in the afternoon. Diagram as follows: M T W F S a.m. O O O p.m. L P P Clues: putting the clues together, we get the following list of her activities: a.m. OOOPR p.m. LLPPP LL . Also, no L on Saturday, which means no L on Friday since the LL block must be on consecutive days (don’t forget, she takes all day Thursday off). Therefore, she must see patients on Friday and Saturday afternoon. No O on Saturday. MT OO Deductions: She must lecture on Tuesday. She has to lecture on consecutive days, and cannot lecture on Friday or Saturday, so she must lecture either MT or TW. In either case, she must lecture Tuesday. Also, she must operate Wednesday and Friday. She cannot operate Saturday, and she can only operate on either Monday or Tuesday. Since she must operate three times, she has to operate on both Wednesday and Friday. 9. What could be her schedule for Wednesday? She must operate in the morning, and either lecture or treat patients in the afternoon. So the correct answer is (C).


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Game II: questions 8-12. Doctor Yamata works MTWFS. She performs four activities: LOPR. Each day, she performs one action in the morning, and one in the afternoon. Diagram as follows: M T W F S a.m. O O O p.m. L P P Clues: putting the clues together, we get the following list of her activities: a.m. OOOPR p.m. LLPPP LL . Also, no L on Saturday, which means no L on Friday since the LL block must be on consecutive days (don’t forget, she takes all day Thursday off). Therefore, she must see patients on Friday and Saturday afternoon. No O on Saturday. MT OO Deductions: She must lecture on Tuesday. She has to lecture on consecutive days, and cannot lecture on Friday or Saturday, so she must lecture either MT or TW. In either case, she must lecture Tuesday. Also, she must operate Wednesday and Friday. She cannot operate Saturday, and she can only operate on either Monday or Tuesday. Since she must operate three times, she has to operate on both Wednesday and Friday. 10. What must be true? (A) No. She could treat patients MFS afternoons and T morning. (B) No. She could research Saturday, when she will never lecture. (C) No. She could research Tuesday, when she lectures. (D) No. She could treat patients Saturday morning, when she never lectures. (E) Yes. She either lectures on MT or TW, and must operate on W and either M or T. There is no way to satisfy these conditions without having her lecture and operate on the same day at least once.


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Game II: questions 8-12. Doctor Yamata works MTWFS. She performs four activities: LOPR. Each day, she performs one action in the morning, and one in the afternoon. Diagram as follows: M T W F S a.m. O O O p.m. L P P Clues: putting the clues together, we get the following list of her activities: a.m. OOOPR p.m. LLPPP LL . Also, no L on Saturday, which means no L on Friday since the LL block must be on consecutive days (don’t forget, she takes all day Thursday off). Therefore, she must see patients on Friday and Saturday afternoon. No O on Saturday. MT OO Deductions: She must lecture on Tuesday. She has to lecture on consecutive days, and cannot lecture on Friday or Saturday, so she must lecture either MT or TW. In either case, she must lecture Tuesday. Also, she must operate Wednesday and Friday. She cannot operate Saturday, and she can only operate on either Monday or Tuesday. Since she must operate three times, she has to operate on both Wednesday and Friday. 11. If she operates Tuesday, when could she treat patients? (A) No. She only treats patients one morning. (B) No. She only treats patients one morning. (C) No. She must treat patients on both Friday and Saturday afternoon. (D) No. She must operate on Wednesday morning. (E) Yes. This could work.


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Game II: questions 8-12. Doctor Yamata works MTWFS. She performs four activities: LOPR. Each day, she performs one action in the morning, and one in the afternoon. Diagram as follows: M T W F S a.m. O O O p.m. L P P Clues: putting the clues together, we get the following list of her activities: a.m. OOOPR p.m. LLPPP LL . Also, no L on Saturday, which means no L on Friday since the LL block must be on consecutive days (don’t forget, she takes all day Thursday off). Therefore, she must see patients on Friday and Saturday afternoon. No O on Saturday. MT OO Deductions: She must lecture on Tuesday. She has to lecture on consecutive days, and cannot lecture on Friday or Saturday, so she must lecture either MT or TW. In either case, she must lecture Tuesday. Also, she must operate Wednesday and Friday. She cannot operate Saturday, and she can only operate on either Monday or Tuesday. Since she must operate three times, she has to operate on both Wednesday and Friday. 12. When must Dr. Yamata treat patients? By checking your initial set-up, you will see that Dr. Yamata must treat patients on Friday and Saturday. The correct answer is therefore (E).


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Game III: questions 13-18. Seven judges— ccmmlll— either voted for or against Datalog’s petition. Diagram as follows: For (2+) Against (2+) l c Clue 1: ccl —> cclmm, Clue 2: lll ——> c,

mm ——> ccl. c ——> lll

Deductions: the contrapositives above. Also, one liberal must vote for Datalog, since if all three liberals voted against, then there could be no conservative against, but there is always at least one conservative against. Key: all you have are the two conditional clues: consider them carefully, and focus on them. 13. If the two moderates do not vote the same way, what could be true? There is no way that two conservatives and a liberal vote the same way, since if they do, the two moderates must also vote that way (see clue 1 above). (A) No. This would mean that two conservatives and one liberal voted against Datalog, and this would require you to apply Clue #1 thereby violating the additional condition given to you in the body of the question. (B) Correct. This would mean that one conservative and two liberals voted against Datalog, and this would allow you to have the two moderates not vote the same way as each other (as required by this specific question). (C) No. This violates Clue #2. (D) No. When the moderates’ votes don’t match, you can’t have two conservatives and one liberal vote the same way. (E) No. When the moderates’ votes don’t match, you can’t have two conservatives and one liberal vote the same way.


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Deductions: the contrapositives above. Also, one liberal must vote for Datalog, since if all three liberals voted against, then there could be no conservative against, but there is always at least one conservative against. Key: all you have are the two conditional clues: consider them carefully, and focus on them. 14. What must be true? See deduction above. At least one liberal must vote for Datalog. The correct answer is (C).


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Deductions: the contrapositives above. Also, one liberal must vote for Datalog, since if all three liberals voted against, then there could be no conservative against, but there is always at least one conservative against. Key: all you have are the two conditional clues: consider them carefully, and focus on them. 15. If all three liberals vote the same way, what must be true? They must all vote for Datalog, and both conservatives must vote against. See clue 2. (A) No, this tells us nothing about the moderates. (B) No, this tells us nothing about the moderates. (C) No, if all the liberals vote together, there can be no conservative with them. (D) No, this tells us nothing about the moderates. (E) Correct. If they voted against, there could be no conservative against, but there is always at least one conservative against.


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Deductions: the contrapositives above. Also, one liberal must vote for Datalog, since if all three liberals voted against, then there could be no conservative against, but there is always at least one conservative against. Key: all you have are the two conditional clues: consider them carefully, and focus on them. 16. If two judges vote against Datalog, what must be true? Try your options: one of the judges against must be conservative, the other, in theory, could be liberal, moderate or conservative: For (2+) Against (2+) lllmm cc llcmm lc lllcm cm The first two options are both fine. The third one breaks a rule: if all three liberals vote together, there can be no conservative who votes with them. So look for the answer that must be true in the first two options. (A) Correct. In both cases, both moderates vote for Datalog. (B) No. This could be true, but does not have to be. (C) No. This could be true, but does not have to be. (D) No. This could be true, but does not have to be. (E) No. This could be true, but does not have to be.


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Deductions: the contrapositives above. Also, one liberal must vote for Datalog, since if all three liberals voted against, then there could be no conservative against, but there is always at least one conservative against. Key: all you have are the two conditional clues: consider them carefully, and focus on them. 17. Each could be a list of all those who voted for Datalog EXCEPT. Look for the answer that breaks a rule; also make sure you consider who would have to vote against Datalog. For (2+) Against (2+) (A) ll lccmm (B) lc llcmm (C) mmlll cc (D) cmmll cl (E) cmmlll c The correct answer is (E). There must be at least two judges who vote against Datalog (it’s one of the original conditions of the game).


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Deductions: the contrapositives above. Also, one liberal must vote for Datalog, since if all three liberals voted against, then there could be no conservative against, but there is always at least one conservative against. Key: all you have are the two conditional clues: consider them carefully, and focus on them. 18. If the two conservatives vote the same way, and the three liberals do not, what must be true? To begin, both conservatives must vote against: For (2+) Against (2+) ll cclmm Since the liberals do not all vote the same way, one must vote against. If one liberal and both conservatives vote the same way, then both moderates will also vote that way (Clue #1). So the votes must be distributed as above. So all the answers must be true except (B), since both moderates actually vote against Datalog.


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Game IV: questions 19-24. Five runners— LNOPS— are each assigned to a lane, 1-5, and a charity— FGHJK. Diagram as follows: 1 2 3 4 5 r(LNOPS) N/L P/O O O/P L/S c(FGHJK) F K G Clue 1:

_P_ F_G

Clue 2:

O_ _ _ _ _ _ G

or

Combine clues 1 + 2:

or

_P_ G_F __ _ O G_ _ _ O_P_ _ F_G

or

_ P_O G_F_

Clue 3: N...S Deductions: P and S cannot be in lane 1, P and N cannot be in lane 5. Also, since there must be two lanes between O and G, neither can be in lane 3, since that would force the other to be in lane zero or lane 6, neither of which exists. Next, if you try to put O in either lane 1 or lane 5, you can’t fit the block because K is already in lane 4 (and if O were on either end, then either F or G would have to be in lane 4 and that space is taken by K). Further, since O is in lane 2 or 4, then G is either in lane 1 or 5 (because of the block). Finally, P and O must be separated by exactly one lane, in which F will be (and since O is either in lane 2 or 4 this means that F is in lane 3). Your options for what can go where are so limited that in the diagram above we have listed mostly what remains of your available choices rather than what can’t go in certain lanes because it’s more clear. 19. Possible arrangement. Look for the answer that breaks no rules. (A) No. F and G must be separated by exactly one lane. (B) No. F and G must be separated by exactly one lane. (C) No. K must be in lane 4. (D) No. G cannot be in lane 3. See deductions. (E) This is the correct answer.


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_P_ F_G

Clue 2:

O_ _ _ _ _ _ G

or


or

_P_ G_F __ _ O G_ _ _ O_P_ _ F_G

or

_ P_O G_F_

Clue 3: N...S Deductions: P and S cannot be in lane 1, P and N cannot be in lane 5. Also, since there must be two lanes between O and G, neither can be in lane 3, since that would force the other to be in lane zero or lane 6, neither of which exists. Next, if you try to put O in either lane 1 or lane 5, you can’t fit the block because K is already in lane 4 (and if O were on either end, then either F or G would have to be in lane 4 and that space is taken by K). Further, since O is in lane 2 or 4, then G is either in lane 1 or 5 (because of the block). Finally, P and O must be separated by exactly one lane, in which F will be (and since O is either in lane 2 or 4 this means that F is in lane 3). Your options for what can go where are so limited that in the diagram above we have listed mostly what remains of your available choices rather than what can’t go in certain lanes because it’s more clear. 20. What must be true of Patricia? See deductions. She is in the OFPG/GPFO block. So the correct answer is (D).


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_P_ F_G

Clue 2:

O_ _ _ _ _ _ G

or


or

_P_ G_F __ _ O G_ _ _ O_P_ _ F_G

or

_ P_O G_F_

Clue 3: N...S Deductions: P and S cannot be in lane 1, P and N cannot be in lane 5. Also, since there must be two lanes between O and G, neither can be in lane 3, since that would force the other to be in lane zero or lane 6, neither of which exists. Next, if you try to put O in either lane 1 or lane 5, you can’t fit the block because K is already in lane 4 (and if O were on either end, then either F or G would have to be in lane 4 and that space is taken by K). Further, since O is in lane 2 or 4, then G is either in lane 1 or 5 (because of the block). Finally, P and O must be separated by exactly one lane, in which F will be (and since O is either in lane 2 or 4 this means that F is in lane 3). Your options for what can go where are so limited that in the diagram above we have listed mostly what remains of your available choices rather than what can’t go in certain lanes because it’s more clear. 21. If O is in lane 2, what must be true? F is in 3, P is in 4, G is in 5. The correct answer is (B).


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_P_ F_G

Clue 2:

O_ _ _ _ _ _ G

or


or

_P_ G_F __ _ O G_ _ _ O_P_ _ F_G

or

_ P_O G_F_

Clue 3: N...S Deductions: P and S cannot be in lane 1, P and N cannot be in lane 5. Also, since there must be two lanes between O and G, neither can be in lane 3, since that would force the other to be in lane zero or lane 6, neither of which exists. Next, if you try to put O in either lane 1 or lane 5, you can’t fit the block because K is already in lane 4 (and if O were on either end, then either F or G would have to be in lane 4 and that space is taken by K). Further, since O is in lane 2 or 4, then G is either in lane 1 or 5 (because of the block). Finally, P and O must be separated by exactly one lane, in which F will be (and since O is either in lane 2 or 4 this means that F is in lane 3). Your options for what can go where are so limited that in the diagram above we have listed mostly what remains of your available choices rather than what can’t go in certain lanes because it’s more clear. 22. Who could represent charity F? Not P or O. This leaves only answers (A) and (D), so clearly both Larry and Ned can. See whether Sonja can: 1 2 3 4 5 r(LNOPS) N P S O L c(FGHJK) G F K Yes, she can. So the correct answer is (D).


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_P_ F_G

Clue 2:

O_ _ _ _ _ _ G

or


or

_P_ G_F __ _ O G_ _ _ O_P_ _ F_G

or

_ P_O G_F_

Clue 3: N...S Deductions: P and S cannot be in lane 1, P and N cannot be in lane 5. Also, since there must be two lanes between O and G, neither can be in lane 3, since that would force the other to be in lane zero or lane 6, neither of which exists. Next, if you try to put O in either lane 1 or lane 5, you can’t fit the block because K is already in lane 4 (and if O were on either end, then either F or G would have to be in lane 4 and that space is taken by K). Further, since O is in lane 2 or 4, then G is either in lane 1 or 5 (because of the block). Finally, P and O must be separated by exactly one lane, in which F will be (and since O is either in lane 2 or 4 this means that F is in lane 3). Your options for what can go where are so limited that in the diagram above we have listed mostly what remains of your available choices rather than what can’t go in certain lanes because it’s more clear. 23. If N represents J, what must be true? 1 2 3 r(LNOPS) N/L P/O O c(FGHJK) F

4 O/P K

5 L/S

Because of the block, and the fact that N must come before S, N can only represent J in lane 1. Since K must be in lane 4, the block must be distributed O in 2, F in 3, P in 4, G in 5. So the only place for H to go is in lane 2. So the correct answer is (B).


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_P_ F_G

Clue 2:

O_ _ _ _ _ _ G

or


or

_P_ G_F __ _ O G_ _ _ O_P_ _ F_G

or

_ P_O G_F_

Clue 3: N...S Deductions: P and S cannot be in lane 1, P and N cannot be in lane 5. Also, since there must be two lanes between O and G, neither can be in lane 3, since that would force the other to be in lane zero or lane 6, neither of which exists. Next, if you try to put O in either lane 1 or lane 5, you can’t fit the block because K is already in lane 4 (and if O were on either end, then either F or G would have to be in lane 4 and that space is taken by K). Further, since O is in lane 2 or 4, then G is either in lane 1 or 5 (because of the block). Finally, P and O must be separated by exactly one lane, in which F will be (and since O is either in lane 2 or 4 this means that F is in lane 3). Your options for what can go where are so limited that in the diagram above we have listed mostly what remains of your available choices rather than what can’t go in certain lanes because it’s more clear. 24. If Larry represents J, what is a possible arrangement of the runners? Eliminate answers that break rules. (A) This is the correct answer. So Larry and J would be in 1, O and H in 2, N and F in 3, P and K in 4, S and G in 5. (B) No. O cannot be in lane 3. (C) No. N must come before S. (D) No. F must come between O and P, so L would be representing F, and the question says he is representing J. (E) No. O cannot be in lane 3.


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Passage 1: Women are disadvantaged in a market that is hostile to parents, since women are traditionally the primary caregivers for children. 1. Main idea. Women are disadvantaged in a parent-hostile work world. (A) No. The passage is about the disadvantages of being a working parent, no end to which appears to be in sight. (B) No. Reexamination of traditional family roles is not discussed in the passage. (C) No. The focus of the passage is on the disadvantages of being a working parent, especially a working mother. The comparison between working mothers and working fathers is barely alluded to. (D) No. Disadvantages are mentioned for both professional and non-professional women. (E) Correct. Women are disadvantaged in a parent-hostile work world.


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Passage 1: Women are disadvantaged in a market that is hostile to parents, since women are traditionally the primary caregivers for children. 2. What can be inferred about part-time work? See the third paragraph. It does not pay as well nor is it as enriching as full-time work; however, it does allow women to fulfill ‘family duties.’ (A) No. One third of all working mothers work part time, but that does not mean that one third of all part time workers are working mothers. (B) No comparison is made between opportunities for working mothers and for women in general in the field of part-time work. (C) There is no mention of working holidays. (D) Correct. The flexible schedule allows them to address their familial obligations. See lines 36-37. (E) Out of scope. No mention is made of what these women do once their children are fully grown.


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Passage 1: Women are disadvantaged in a market that is hostile to parents, since women are traditionally the primary caregivers for children. 3. What would the author agree with about working fathers? See lines 20-24. They are less prone to feel pressure to be primary caregivers, and are therefore less disadvantaged in the workplace than are working mothers. (A) No. Women are clearly more disadvantaged than are men according to the author. (B) The question of whether men are aware of the problem that the author presents is completely outside of the scope of the passage. (C) Correct. Since women are traditionally the primary caregivers, men are shielded from the pressures of child-rearing. Lines 20-24. (D) No mention is made of men compounding inequities. (E) No blame is placed on men for the traditional family roles.


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Passage 1: Women are disadvantaged in a market that is hostile to parents, since women are traditionally the primary caregivers for children. 4. What is the most troublesome barrier facing working parents with primary child-care responsibility? (A) No. There is no claim that there are no full-time jobs available for women. (B) Correct. Many working mothers work part-time due to the flexible schedule. Furthermore, even those who do work fulltime choose to work jobs that allow for flexible scheduling, or that have schedules that concur with their children’s school schedules. So clearly the inflexible schedules of most jobs are problematic. (C) No. They would not have to work part-time if full-time schedules were not so inflexible. (D) No. There is no indication that primary caregivers are forced to work in non-professional jobs when they are actually qualified for professional jobs. (E) No. There is no indication that workplace responsibility is assigned on the basis of gender. Furthermore, if this were the case, then this would be a problem with sexism, not a problem just for working mothers.


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Passage 1: Women are disadvantaged in a market that is hostile to parents, since women are traditionally the primary caregivers for children. 5. Why is daycare a limited solution? See the first paragraph. Pick the answer that is NOT cited as a problem with daycare. (A) Yes. See lines 10-12. (B) Yes. See line 7. (C) Yes. See line 7. (D) No. This is a problem with school, not with daycare. This is the correct answer. (E) Yes. See lines 8-10.


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Passage 1: Women are disadvantaged in a market that is hostile to parents, since women are traditionally the primary caregivers for children. 6. What are some of the decisions working parents are forced to make? Pick the answer that is NOT cited as a decision that working parents sometimes make. (A) No. There is no indication that qualified professionals are ever forced to work non-professional jobs. This is the correct answer. (B) Yes. See the third paragraph. (C) Yes. See lines 43-46. (D) Yes. See lines 51-59. (E) Yes. See paragraphs 2-4.


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Passage 1: Women are disadvantaged in a market that is hostile to parents, since women are traditionally the primary caregivers for children. 7. Which statement would appropriately continue the argument at the end of the final paragraph? Reread the final sentence. Look for the answer that supports the ideas of this statement. (A) Correct. If women are disadvantaged in the labor market, men must be advantaged. (B) No. We have no idea whether men are aware of these barriers and, if they are, whether they are trying to change them. (C) No. There is no indication that salaries are going to become more equitable. (D) No. There is no claim that men with primary care-giving responsibilities are not also disadvantaged. (E) No. This is far too broad. The passage is only about child-rearing, not about institutions that favor men over women.


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Passage II: Webster’s complicated and contradictory characters are not, as some critics claim, signs of his incompetence, but rather signs of his complexity and the lack of influence of morality plays on his work. 8. Primary purpose. Why was the passage written? To show that the judgment that Webster’s ambiguous characters are flawed is itself flawed. (A) No ambiguous assertion is clarified. (B) No, the commonly held view is attacked, not supported. (C) No, no question is analyzed— an interpretation is attacked. (D) Correct. An alternative way of interpreting Webster’s characters is offered. (E) No, one viewpoint is clearly favored over the other.


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Passage II: Webster’s complicated and contradictory characters are not, as some critics claim, signs of his incompetence, but rather signs of his complexity and the lack of influence of morality plays on his work. 9. What does the author suggest about Webster’s influences? See lines 19-35. He was not influenced by the morality play, wherein characters became representatives of good and evil. (A) Correct. The plays that influenced Webster were clearly distinct from the morality plays. (B) No. If anything, his sources were more complicated (lines 33-35), and therefore arguably more sophisticated. (C) No. Only modern critics’ understanding of Webster is discussed. (D) No. The morality play has recently been used to illuminate Elizabethan drama, but Webster was not strongly influenced by the morality play. (E) No. It has been the over-estimation of the importance of the morality play, which according to the passage did not exert a strong influence on Webster, that has led to judgments of his incompetence.


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Passage II: Webster’s complicated and contradictory characters are not, as some critics claim, signs of his incompetence, but rather signs of his complexity and the lack of influence of morality plays on his work. 10. Why does the author refer to Aristotle’s views on tragedy? To show that there is a precedent for Webster’s morally ambiguous characters. (A) No. This view of Webster’s tragedies is apparently not commonly held. (B) Correct. It shows a precedent for Webster’s conception of tragedy. (C) No. It is an example of the view that the author espouses. (D) No. Webster is not a modern writer. Modern approaches to tragedy are out of scope. (E) No. Aristotle is an ancient Greek philosopher (lines 11-12), not a modern scholar.


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Passage II: Webster’s complicated and contradictory characters are not, as some critics claim, signs of his incompetence, but rather signs of his complexity and the lack of influence of morality plays on his work. 11. The modern critics interpretations would be more valid if... Webster were more strongly influenced by morality plays (lines 17-38). (A) No. Human duality is not mentioned regarding the modern critics views. (B) No. His conception evidently is similar to that of Aristotle. (C) Correct. See lines 17-38. (D) No. The argument is about Webster, not other Elizabethan dramatists. Furthermore, Webster evidently was sensitive to Italian sources of influence. (E) No. The critics’ criticism is based on a supposed similarity to morality plays, and has nothing to do with the modern audience.


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Passage II: Webster’s complicated and contradictory characters are not, as some critics claim, signs of his incompetence, but rather signs of his complexity and the lack of influence of morality plays on his work. 12. What does the author believe to be true about Elizabethan drama? Most Elizabethan playwrights were strongly influenced by the morality play. See lines 17-35. (A) No. The skill of these dramatists is not denigrated in the passage. (B) No. Webster is clearly thought to be atypical. (C) Correct. See lines 17-35. (D) No. Such a careful examination is not proposed in the passage. (E) No. The morality play is cited as a major influence on most Elizabethan drama.


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Passage II: Webster’s complicated and contradictory characters are not, as some critics claim, signs of his incompetence, but rather signs of his complexity and the lack of influence of morality plays on his work. 13. What do most modern critics assume about Webster? That he should be judged by the same standards as his contemporaries, especially regarding the influence of the morality play. (A) No. In fact, he is criticized precisely for failing to allegorize this conflict. (B) No. This is the author’s assertion, not the modern critics’. (C) No. They were the result of his failure to conform to the standards of the morality play. (D) No. Too extreme. No relevant basis? It is the contradictions that are criticized, at any rate, not the moral development. (E) Correct. Their criticism is based on his failure to conform to the standards of moral behavior in the morality play. Therefore, they assume that his work is informed by the morality play in a similar fashion to the work of his contemporaries.


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Passage II: Webster’s complicated and contradictory characters are not, as some critics claim, signs of his incompetence, but rather signs of his complexity and the lack of influence of morality plays on his work. 14. What does the author imply about Webster’s conception of tragedy? That it is different from that of his contemporaries. (A) No. The author does not criticize Webster. (B) No. Webster is distinct from the conventions of his time. (C) No. His conception is not derived from the morality play. (D) Correct. His conception is more morally ambiguous than is that of his contemporaries. (E) No. The classical conception is not discussed in the passage, except through reference to Aristotle, but outside knowledge is required to know that Aristotle’s conception is classical.


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Passage III: questions 15-20. Genetically engineered bacteria may help agriculture in the future, but there is still considerable debate on the subject. 15. Main idea. Look for the answer that best sums up the passage as a whole. (A) Too narrow. Also, inaccurate: no mention is made of genetically altered bacteria actually being released. (B) Correct. This nicely sums up the passage. (C) Too narrow. The passage is about more than just the alteration of a single species of bacteria. (D) Too narrow and inaccurate. The passage deals both with proponents and opponents of genetic engineering, and the replacement of crop rotation is never mentioned. (E) Inaccurate. We are given no indication that such experiments have been successful in a laboratory context, and opponents are worried about harmful effects, not the inability of altered organisms to survive.


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Passage III: questions 15-20. Genetically engineered bacteria may help agriculture in the future, but there is still considerable debate on the subject. 16. Why does the author mention Pseudomonas fluorescens? To show a possible use for bacteria in agriculture. (A) No. Too extreme. We are given no indication that these bacteria are the sole cause of suppression. (B) No. Fields were not sprayed with altered bacteria. (C) No. The chemical processes are not detailed. (D) Correct. The bacteria sets a precedent for the possible use of other, genetically altered bacteria in agriculture. (E) No. The author does not suggest that crop rotation is unecessary.


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Passage III: questions 15-20. Genetically engineered bacteria may help agriculture in the future, but there is still considerable debate on the subject. 17. What can be inferred about a crop that is impervious to parasitical organisms? If the purpose of spraying crops with the bacteria is to suppress such organisms (lines 13-25), it would be useless to spray impervious crops with the bacteria. (A) No. The bacteria could still be present; it would just not help fight infection. (B) No. The notion of one species crowding out another is not mentioned in the discussion of Pseudomonas fluorescens bacteria. (C) Correct. If the crop is already immune to the effects of parasitical infection, there would be no reason to spray the crop with the bacteria. (D) Rate of crop maturity is not discussed in the passage. (E) There is no reason to believe that phytopathogenic bacteria would flourish around crops that such bacteria could not infect.


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Passage III: questions 15-20. Genetically engineered bacteria may help agriculture in the future, but there is still considerable debate on the subject. 18. Why does crop rotation increase the yield of crops? See lines 6-8. It denies pathogens a suitable host. (A) No. There is no mention of increasing plant resistance to disease. (B) No. The bacteria are mentioned as a factor when crops are not rotated. (C) No. The production of compounds by roots of plants is not mentioned anywhere in the passage. (D) No. Other types of plant disease are not mentioned in the passage. (E) Correct. If crop rotation denies the phytopathogens a suitable host, then it must be true that not all plants are suitable hosts for a given species of phytopathogen.


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Passage III: questions 15-20. Genetically engineered bacteria may help agriculture in the future, but there is still considerable debate on the subject. 19. Proponents of genetically engineered bacteria claim what about the altered bacteria used in frostdamage experiments? See lines 34-45. They claim that the altered bacteria is only different in that it lacks a single harmful gene. (A) Correct. See lines 41-45. (B) No. No attempts to use the bacteria in the natural environment are mentioned. (C) No. No comparison is made between the two distinct species of bacteria, only between altered and unaltered versions of a single species. (D) No. The altered bacteria are only intended to prevent frost damage, not combat phytopathogens. (E) No. No mention is made of actual release of the altered bacteria.


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Passage III: questions 15-20. Genetically engineered bacteria may help agriculture in the future, but there is still considerable debate on the subject. 20. What would weaken the proponent’s argument about the safety of altered Pseudomonas syringae? Look for the answer that proposes some danger to releasing the altered bacteria. (A) The complexity of their genetic constitution is not relevant to the argument. (B) This is not new information. We knew that the strain could cause damage— frost damage. (C) This does not address questions of safety. (D) Correct. So the removal of this single gene could actually create new harmful characteristics. (E) This does not address questions of safety.


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Passage IV: questions 21-27. Since the reasons provided for the restrictions in the Dawes Act on the sales of Native American land are not convincing, other reasons must be responsible. The reason that the author proposes is that the Bureau of Indian Affairs (BIA) wished to increase its own power. 21. Main Idea. Look for the answer that best sums up the passage. (A) No. Too broad. The passage is only about the Dawes Act. Furthermore, the act does not consider the needs of non-Native American purchasers, either. It favors the bureaucrats. (B) No. Too narrow. The passage is about the Dawes Act, not preserving tradition. (C) Correct. Notice the nice moderate language (may have been). (D) No. Too extreme (greatly expanded) and broad (governmental activity instead of BIA activity). (E) No. Such transfer was only restricted for twenty five years.


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Passage IV: questions 21-27. Since the reasons provided for the restrictions in the Dawes Act on the sales of Native American land are not convincing, other reasons must be responsible. The reason that the author proposes is that the Bureau of Indian Affairs (BIA) wished to increase its own power. 22. Which answer would support the author’s view of politicians concerning the end of allotment? Politicians are motivated by chances to expand their ability to exercise political patronage (lines 48-51). (A) No. There is no indication that politicians are concerned with whether the Native American way of life is damaged. (B) This is completely unrelated to any assertion the author makes about politicians. (C) Correct. If they saw no chance to enhance their chances to exercise patronage, then there would be no reason not to end allotment. (D) No. There is no mention of competition between the politicians and the BIA as a motivating factor in political decisions. (E) This is unrelated to any statement the author makes about the motivations of politicians.


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Passage IV: questions 21-27. Since the reasons provided for the restrictions in the Dawes Act on the sales of Native American land are not convincing, other reasons must be responsible. The reason that the author proposes is that the Bureau of Indian Affairs (BIA) wished to increase its own power. 23. What best describes the organization of the passage? Justifications for a law are given then dismissed, then an alternate explanation for the law is proposed. (A) No. The law is not analyzed in detail. Its justifications are. (B) The repeal of the law is not advocated. (C) The permanent effects of the law are not studied. (D) Correct. This describes the organization of the passage accurately. (E) No. The focus of the passage is on the Dawes Act, not on the legal status of Native Americans.


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Passage IV: questions 21-27. Since the reasons provided for the restrictions in the Dawes Act on the sales of Native American land are not convincing, other reasons must be responsible. The reason that the author proposes is that the Bureau of Indian Affairs (BIA) wished to increase its own power. 24. What is the author’s attitude towards the reasons given for the restrictions on alienability in the Dawes Act? The author does not believe the reasons to be true. (A) No. The author is completely incredulous. (B) No. There is no indication of approval. (C) No. The author is clearly against the line of reasoning proposed. (D) No. The author is more than merely mildly questioning. (E) Correct. The author clearly doubts that the reasons given for the restrictions are valid or sincere.


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Passage IV: questions 21-27. Since the reasons provided for the restrictions in the Dawes Act on the sales of Native American land are not convincing, other reasons must be responsible. The reason that the author proposes is that the Bureau of Indian Affairs (BIA) wished to increase its own power. 25. What was true of Native American life before the Dawes Act? There was not wide-scale private ownership of land. Lines 1-3. (A) No. No mention is made of Native American means of support. (B) Correct. Private ownership was not widespread. (C) No. They had clearly not bought the land they lived on, since private ownership was not common. (D) No mention is made of the degree of contact between Native and non-Native Americans. (E) No mention is made of how willing Native Americans might have been to sell their land to non-Native Americans. Most of the land was not owned by individuals, in any case.


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Passage IV: questions 21-27. Since the reasons provided for the restrictions in the Dawes Act on the sales of Native American land are not convincing, other reasons must be responsible. The reason that the author proposes is that the Bureau of Indian Affairs (BIA) wished to increase its own power. 26. What changed about the land ownership provided by the Dawes Act after 25 years? The Native Americans could sell their land after 25 years. Lines 3-15. (A) No. Farming is not mentioned. (B) Correct. Only after 25 years could the owners sell their land. (C) No. It is before the end of the 25-year period that the government maintained control, not after. (D) No mention is made of building restrictions. (E) No mention is made of government fees for developing land.


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Passage IV: questions 21-27. Since the reasons provided for the restrictions in the Dawes Act on the sales of Native American land are not convincing, other reasons must be responsible. The reason that the author proposes is that the Bureau of Indian Affairs (BIA) wished to increase its own power. 27. What strengthens the author’s argument about the real motivations behind the passage of the Dawes Act? Look for the answer that supports the idea of the BIA wanting to expand its bureaucratic power. (A) No. Then they would probably not want to restrict the ability of the Native Americans to sell. (B) Unimportant. If anything, this supports the idea that the passage of the Dawes Act might be damaging to the Native Americans’ communal way of life, one of the alleged concerns that the author dismisses. (C) This answer choice is not relevant to the BIA and their power. (D) Correct. This indicates that the BIA was strongly in favor of the passage of the act, which strengthens the notion that the act served their interests. (E) What was done with land purchased from Native Americans is not relevant.


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1. Strengthen. Look for the answer that reinforces the argument’s conclusion. The argument claims that the reduction in speed limit led to a decrease in highway fatalities. Look for an answer that reinforces the causal assumption by removing other possible explanations for the rate of highway fatalities. (A) No. This weakens the argument by implying there might be another reason (fewer cars on the highway) for the drop in fatalities. (B) If anything, this would weaken the argument, but the effects of a single year on a study done over the course of many years would have a negligible impact on the argument in any case. (C) This weakens the argument by providing an alternate reason for the drop in fatalities. (D) This strengthens the argument by establishing a correlation between increased speed and a higher rate of fatalities. (E) This has no impact on the argument, since speeds could be matched no matter what the speed limit is.


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2. Main point. Look for the answer that sums up what the argument is trying to prove. That legislators who refuse to commit public funds for scientific research without the assurance that such research will benefit the public are mistaken. (A) No. Too extreme. The argument does not guarantee that all research will be as fruitful as the research that produced antibiotics. (B) No. The point is that the legislators’ refusal is short-sighted. (C) Unknown. Again, the point is that the legislators should reconsider their position. (D) No. The argument does not claim that research will definitely benefit the public if legislators fund research. (E) Correct. The point is that legislators should reconsider their refusal to fund research simply because there is no assurance that the public will benefit.


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3. Flaw. Look for the error in the argument’s reasoning. The argument fails to consider the possibility that assignments could be devised that present a challenge but are not too difficult. (A) No such equation is made. (B) Correct. The argument assumes that work must be either too easy or too hard. (C) We do not know whether the evidence provided is subjective or objective. (D) We do not know whether the causal relationships posited are real or merely coincidental. (E) There is no ambiguous term in the argument.


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4. Weaken. Which of the following would indicate that the advertisement is misleading? One way to weaken the argument would be to establish that apricots and carrots are not good sources of vitamin C. Another way would be to challenge the association between “good nutrition” and “a good source of vitamin C.” (A) Unimportant. The question is whether they are good sources of vitamin C. (B) There is no reason to believe that the soup would stay in contact with the air for protracted periods of time. (C) This answer choice would strengthen the argument. (D) The question is whether it is significant that the soup contains more vitamin C than do carrots or apricots, not whether it provides more vitamin C than do other fruits and vegetables. (E) Correct. If carrots and apricots are not a good source of vitamin C, then it is not necessarily significant that the soup provides a greater amount of vitamin C.


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5. Principle. Look for the answer that justifies the conclusion of the argument. The depositors benefit from insurance on their deposits; so they, and not the banks, should be the ones who pay the premiums on the insurance. (A) Correct. This would justify the conclusion. (B) The size of the premiums is not relevant to the argument. (C) Incentive for investors is not discussed. (D) Whether this choice is available is not important to the argument that the depositors should be the ones who pay the premiums. (E) Whether the behavior of corporations and individuals has been altered by the government’s actions is unknown.


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6. What does the argument assume? That the depositors do not already pay the deposit insurance premiums through various fees that the banks charge them. (A) Default on loans is out of the scope of the argument. (B) Whether private insurance companies could provide this service is unknown. (C) Correct. In other words, it really is the depositors, and not the banks, who pay the premiums. (D) Any limitations to the insurance are not discussed in the argument. (E) Only insured accounts are relevant to the argument.


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7. Inference. If the statements above are true, what can be inferred on the basis of them? If students are all treated equally, they will master curricula at differing rates. (A) Correct. Only if students are treated unequally is there any possibility that they will all master the material at the same rates and to the same degree. (B) How much a student learns does not necessarily depend on the quantity of teaching that a student receives. It could also depend on the type and quality of instruction, for example. (C) The relationship between the experience of the teacher and the success of the students is outside the scope of the argument. (D) No. In fact, the argument claims that identical exposure assures differing rates and degrees of learning. (E) No. How much teachers ought to help their students is outside the scope of the argument.


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8. Assumption. What do we need to know about to evaluate the validity of George’s conclusion? George assumes that isolated instances (last winter and this fall) are representative of trends. We need to know whether last winter and this fall represent larger changes in the global climate, or whether they are just isolated anomalies. (A) No. The precise causes of global warming are unimportant. (B) No. The question is whether one fall in one town represents a change in the global environment. (C) No. The precise causes of global warming are unimportant. (D) No. Why trees lose their leaves is completely irrelevant to George’s argument. (E) Correct. The question is whether warm weather in one isolated area is representative of a larger trend towards warmer weather everywhere.


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9. Flaw. What is the questionable technique employed by the dean of students? The dean confuses not expelling a student with endorsing that student’s actions. (A) No. The student’s knowledge of the process is not challenged. (B) No. No distinction is invoked between speech and other behavior. (C) Yes. The dean claims that the student is asking the university to endorse harassment, while the student is actually merely questioning the appropriateness of the expulsion. (D) The student’s motives are not questioned. (E) The dean does not rely on power to silence the student.


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10. Inference. Which answer is most strongly supported by the information in the argument? (A) Too extreme. It is possible that the principle is normally applied, and that there are only a few exceptions. (B) No. Having equal proportions, rather than equal numbers, of celebrities and non-celebrities sentenced to community service, would indicate equal treatment. This answer choice would only be correct as written if it were true that equal numbers of celebrities and non-celebrities were found guilty of the same type of crime. (C) Whether the principle was properly overridden is not discussed in the argument. (D) Correct. Celebrities, according to this principle, should receive the same punishment as would anyone else. (E) Leniency is allowed, so long as it is applied equally.


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11. Flaw. Find the answer that describes the flaw in the foundation’s reasoning? Though the money provided by the foundation might not be used to fund weapons research, it could free up other money to be used for weapons research. (A) Correct. The foundation does not allow for the possibility that their funding will allow other funding to be redirected to weapons research. (B) No. The argument is only about the weapons research. (C) No. This may be the case, but so long as the university intends to honor the promise, this is not a flaw. (D) There is no such confusion in the argument. The university clearly intends to use the money. (E) No, the means are not being judged at all, merely the objective.


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12. Weaken. The statements in the argument undermine which answer. Look for the answer that would be most directly affected by the information presented in the argument. Advertising agencies have modified a strategy normally used for politicians to suit the needs of corporate clients; the strategy consists of using controversy to produce free prime-time publicity. (A) Yes. The statements weaken this claim, by proposing that exposure is important, not just degree of persuasiveness. (B) This argument makes no claims about the persuasiveness of controversial campaigns. (C) Just because corporate advertising borrows ideas from politics does not mean that politics cannot borrow ideas from corporate advertising. (D) If anything, the argument would strengthen this claim, as a controversial campaign might negatively impact goodwill, but would almost certainly increase candidate recognition. (E) The argument makes no claims about the sorts of agencies selected for either type of campaign.


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13. Assumption. What must be assumed for the conclusion to be properly drawn. The argument concludes that the increase in the percentage of houses with smoke detectors is useless in helping prevent the early detection of fires, since over half of the smoke detectors are inoperative. This argument assumes that a larger proportion of smoke detectors is inoperative now than in the past. Otherwise, the increase in the percentage of homes that have smoke detectors would likely increase the chances of early detection, regardless of the fact that many are inoperative. (A) No. This is closer to an inference (though the percentage is incorrect) than an assumption. This is unrelated to the validity of the conclusion. (B) The number of fires is out of scope. The issue is early detection of fires. (C) It makes no difference to the conclusion of the argument what sort of power source is used by the smoke detectors. (D) Correct. If the proportion of functioning smoke detectors had remained constant, then the percentage of homes with operative detectors would have increased, thereby increasing the likelihood of early detection. (E) Automatic sprinklers are never mentioned and are therefore not relevant to this argument.


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14. Parallel the flaw. Look for the answer that has the same flawed reasoning as the advertisement. The ad assumes that because HomeGlo has increased its environmental safety by the greatest amount, it is the safest brand. Look for the answer that equates the greatest increase over a period of time as evidence of being the best. (A) There is no flaw, except that the argument assumes that the report is accurate. (B) The argument assumes that most nutritious cereal means most nutritious food. This is a different flaw than the one in the original argument. (C) This equates visits with profits, which is a different flaw. (D) Correct. This assumes that because his improvement is the greatest, his performance is the greatest. This is the same flaw. (E) This assumes that because her current story is good, her earlier ones must also be good. This is a different flaw than the one in the original argument.


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15. Inference. Look for the answer that can be properly inferred from the passage. (A) There is no connection between consistency and flavor. (B) No. What it costs to preserve flavor is not addressed in the argument. (C) No new device is discussed. (D) No, stabilizers are not necessary at very low temperatures. (E) Correct. Low temperatures conserve consistency without sacrificing flavor.


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16. How does Alberto criticize Edwina? He questions whether Mozart himself heard the music the way he intended it to be heard. (A) He appeals to no authority. (B) He makes so such claim about her appreciation of performer’s creativity. (C) No competing view of authenticity is advanced. (D) He suggests no gap between her conclusion and her premises. (E) Correct. He suggests that Mozart might well have never heard the music the way he intended it to be played, and that indeed the question of intent may not be relevant.


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17. Resolve/Explain. Look for the answer that explains the apparent paradox. Why has the cost of private insurance increased rather than decreased since the advent of the national health plan? (A) If overhead has decreased, why have costs increased? (B) Then why has the cost of the insurance increased? (C) This offers no explanation for why the cost of private insurance is higher. (D) The only people who are now buying private insurance already know that they are going to use it, which means that the insurance company is covering procedures for a much greater proportion of its clients. This explains why the cost of insurance has increased. (E) If total expenses have declined, why has cost increased?


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18. Inference. Look for the answer that completes the argument. How could the intention of the studies be frustrated? (A) Correct. If patients develop symptomatic side effects, then physicians can tell they are likely not receiving the placebo. (B) This would make it more, not less, difficult to tell who was really receiving the active drug. (C) This offers no reason that anyone would be able to tell the placebo from the real drug. (D) How long the experimenters work on the trail is not relevant to the argument. (E) Whether they know they could be receiving a placebo does not explain how they might ascertain whether they are receiving one.


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19. Which group would not have its scheduling conflicts resolved by the proposal? (A) No. December 30 and 31 would always fall on the same day. (B) Correct. The day of the week that such groups could not work would change every year. (C) No. The specific number of days could easily remain constant. (D) No. The three-day breaks would be easy to schedule. (E) No. It would be much easier to plan events years in advance under the proposed system.


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20. How does the argument against graphology proceed? By showing that people can change what graphologists take to be indicative of unchangeable characteristics. (A) Correct. The argument cites evidence that leads to an absurd conclusion (i.e. that permanent characteristics can be changed). (B) There is no indication that the claim is merely a platitude. (C) There is no claim that it can never be effective. (D) The theoretical justification, if any, is not discussed. (E) There is no discussion of how to detect these characteristics without the technique.


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21. What does the critic’s response to the historian do? (A) Correct. It cites the presence in modern law of many laws that are no longer relevant, and so presumes that the same might be true of ancient laws. (B) No general principle is identified. (C) No such distinction is made. (D) No such criteria are established. (E) No, it makes claims at similarity, not dissimilarity.


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22. Why is the critic’s response flawed? Because the law in question was enacted, not merely on the books, at the time the historian is referring to. (A) No such evidence is produced. (B) Whether the current laws relate to the timber trade is unimportant to the analogy. (C) It does recognize the indirect nature of the evidence. (D) Correct. The law was enacted during the time in question according to the historian, so it could not have been an out of date law that still existed. (E) No such assumption is accepted.


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23. Strengthen. Which answer allows the conclusion to be properly drawn? The argument concludes that some of the subsidiaries will be sold, because this is necessary to avoid a strike. The argument assumes that Bell Manufacturing will act to avoid a strike. (A) No. There is no mention of losses. (B) No. In fact, it is assumed that they will increase the workers’ wages. (C) Correct. If they will not be going on strike, then it must be true that they are going to receive increased wages, so it must be true that subsidiaries will be sold. (D) The person or group who has the authority to authorize wage increases is not relevant to the argument. (E) This is not an assumption. The argument clearly states that only a wage increase can prevent a strike.


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24. Assumption. What does the method rely on? That a word passing into common usage is the same as the idea originally embodied into that word passing into common usage. (A) No. The argument merely presumes that they are interested in common words, not necessarily at the expense of uncommon ones. (B) No. Exact numerical criteria are out of scope. (C) No. Dictionary editors are used as a measure for determining whether an idea has taken hold, but not as a necessary condition for that idea’s having taken hold. (D) Correct. If the meaning of a word undergoes distortion when it passes into common usage, then it is possible that the idea originally embodied in that word is not yet accepted. (E) No. In fact, the usage of words is represented in the argument as a measure of understanding the idea.


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25. Parallel the reasoning. Look for the answer that matches the reasoning of the argument. Since migrant workers do in fact work as many hours as does a fulltime worker, they should be subject to the same laws as a fulltime worker. Look for the argument that asserts a similarity between two apparently distinct classes of things as justification for similar treatment of those two classes of things. (A) No. Two distinct classes of things are not being treated as if they were similar. (B) No. Two distinct classes of things are not being treated as if they were similar. (C) No. Two distinct classes of things are not being treated as if they were similar. (D) No. There is only one class of things— liquor laws. (E) Correct. Food additives and drugs— two distinct classes of things— are said to be similar, and so should be treated similarly by the law. This matches.


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